The recent charges against Trump by the Special Prosecutor Jack Smith … obstruction of justice … echos the old Nixon canard, “It’s not the crime, it’s the coverup.”
But Pilgrim, for the DOJ to convict Trump of obstruction of justice, does it not have to prove the underlying crime first? (There was a clear crime in Nixon’s case.) And, if they can’t do this, doesn’t the obstruction charge become moot?
Is there such a charge as obstruction of injustice? Seems like this should be a virtue?
STAND UP TO INJUSTICE!
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